Assessment Test for Core 1 Exam 220-1101.
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Question 1:
Which will accomplish a specific task for the user?
A) Driver
B) Application
C) Operating system
D) Filesystem
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. An application is written to perform a specific task for the user of
the operating system, such as word processing or data analysis. Drivers allow the operating system to
communicate with the hardware. The operating system and the filesystem assist in running applications.
Question 2:
Which operating system is a cloud-based operating system?
A) Linux
B) Android
C) Windows 10
D) Chrome OS
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The Google Chrome OS is a true cloud-based operating system because all
the data is stored in the cloud. Cloud-based operating systems require an Internet connection to access
information. Android and Windows 10 use cloud storage, but are not considered cloud-based operating systems.
Linux is strictly a workstation operating system.
Question 3:
Which term defines the precompiled instructions that are programmed and allows an operating system and its applications to operate?
A) Shell
B) Source
C) GUI
D) Multithreading
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. The source, also known as the source code, is the code to be compiled,
and this allows the operating system and applications to execute. The shell is a component of the operating
system that allows execution of applications. The GUI is a graphical extension of the shell to allow the
execution of applications. Multithreading is a term used to describe how an application can create multiple
simultaneous requests to the processor.
Question 4:
Which term best describes the Android operating system?
A) Server
B) Workstation
C) Mobile
D) Cloud-based
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The Android operating system is a mobile operating system often used
with tablets and phones. A server is an operating system that is optimized to serve information. A workstation
is an operating system that is optimized to execute and display the information retrieved from a server
operating system. A cloud-based operating system is an operating system that requires network connectivity to
access applications.
Question 5:
You need to change a computer’s name and join it to a domain. Which tool will allow you to perform these actions?
A) Device Manager
B) User Accounts
C) System Properties
D) Credential Manager
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The System Properties applet (SYSDM.CPL) allows you to change the
computer name and join the system to a domain. Device Manager is used to manage hardware resources. The User
Accounts applet is used to manage user accounts. Credential Manager is used to manage stored credentials.
Question 6:
Which tab in Task Manager allows you to see processes separated by each user on the system?
A) Processes
B) Performance
C) App History
D) Users
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The Users tab in Task Manager allows you to see processes sorted by
each user. The Processes tab shows you processes sorted by foreground and background applications. The
Performance tab shows you the overall performance of the system with graphical charts. The App History tab
displays historical information about processes, such as CPU time.
Question 7:
Which RAID system requires three or more disks to provide fault tolerance?
A) Mirroring
B) Striping
C) RAID-1
D) Striping with parity
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. Striping with parity, also known as RAID-5, requires three or more
disks and provides fault tolerance. Mirroring, also known as RAID-1, only requires two disks. Striping, also
known as RAID-0, provides no fault tolerance.
Question 8:
Which Windows Update branch allows you to install preview releases of updates for Windows 10?
A) Semi-Annual Channel
B) Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted)
C) Long-Term Servicing Channel
D) Insider Program
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The Insider Program allows for the installation of brand-new features
before they are publicly released. The Semi-Annual Channel is normally delayed by three to four months. The
Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) branch will install updates as they are released to the general public. The
Long-Term Servicing Channel never installs new features during the life of the version of Windows.
Question 9:
Which tool allows you to ready the operating system for imaging?
A) Microsoft Deployment Toolkit
B) Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit
C) sysprep.exe
D) Windows Imaging
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The sysprep.exe utility allows you to ready the operating system for
imaging by resetting specific information, such as the computer name. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit can
assist in creating the steps, but it calls on the sysprep tool. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit allows
you to customize the Windows operating system for imaging, but it does not ready the operating system for
imaging. Windows Imaging (WIM) is a file format to contain the image.
Question 10:
Which element of the boot process holds the information that instructs the operating system to load from a specific partition?
A) winload.exe
B) BOOTMGR
C) winresume.exe
D) BCD
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) holds the information that instructs
the Windows Boot Manager (BOOTMGR) to load the operating system from a specific partition. winload.exe loads the
operating system kernel. BOOTMGR is the initial bootstrap program that reads the BCD. winresume.exe is used when
resuming a previous session that has been suspended.
Question 11:
You need to configure a static IP address for Windows 10. Which of the following allows you to perform this task?
A) The Network & Sharing Center
B) Windows Defender Firewall
C) The Network & Internet settings screen
D) The VPN settings screen
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. By clicking Start, then the Settings gear, and choosing Network &
Internet, you can configure the properties of the network adapter to set up a static IP address. The Network &
Sharing Center is used to view the network connection firewall profile and connection status. The Windows
Defender Firewall is used to protect the operating system from malicious network connectivity. The VPN settings
screen allows you to configure a virtual private network (VPN) connection.
Question 12:
Which filesystem performs on-the-fly defragmentation?
A) FAT
B) NTFS
C) ext4
D) FAT32
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The ext4 filesystem does not suffer from fragmentation, because it
performs on-the-fly defragmentation. FAT is a 16-bit filesystem that suffers from fragmentation. NTFS is a
journaled filesystem that suffers from fragmentation. FAT32 is a 32-bit filesystem that suffers from
fragmentation.
Question 13:
Which place can you find updates for Apple operating systems?
A) iTunes
B) App Store
C) Keychain
D) Mission Control
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. The App Store is where you can find updates for the Apple operating
system. iTunes is used to purchase and download music, videos, and other content. The Keychain is used to store
credentials on behalf of the user. Mission Control is used to view all the currently running applications.
Question 14:
Which macOS feature is similar to Windows File Explorer?
A) Keychain
B) iCloud
C) Spotlight
D) Finder
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The macOS Finder is the equivalent to the Windows File Explorer. The
Keychain is a password management system for the operating system. iCloud is a cloud-based storage and backup
service. Spotlight helps you find applications, documents, and other files.
Question 15:
Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. This attempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely experiencing?
A) Password-guessing attack
B) Rootkit attack
C) Worm attack
D) TCP/IP hijacking
Explanation: Correct Answer is A. A password-guessing attack occurs when a user account is repeatedly
attacked using a variety of passwords. A rootkit attack would not be immediately seen and would not show as an
ongoing effort. A worm attack would not be visible as an ongoing attempt to gain access. TCP/IP hijacking is a
form of on-path attack.
Question 16:
One of the vice presidents of the company calls a meeting with the information technology department after a recent trip to competitors’ sites. They report that many of the companies they visited granted access to their buildings only after fingerprint scans, and the VP wants similar technology employed at this company. Of the following, which technology relies on a physical attribute of the user for authentication?
A) Smartcard
B) Biometrics
C) Geofencing
D) Tokens
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. Biometrics relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify
identity. Biometric devices typically use either a hand pattern or a retinal scan to accomplish this. Smartcards
contain a private certificate key and are protected with a passphrase. Geofencing, which uses GPS coordinates to
require authentication, only happens within those parameters. Tokens are rotating numerical keys that you must
physically have with you.
Question 17:
What type of malware is able to conceal itself from many parts of the operating system and will obtain/retain elevated privileges?
A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Rootkit
D) Botnet
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. Rootkits are software programs that have the ability to hide certain
things from the operating system. A worm is malware that replicates itself and infects other systems. Trojans
are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program. A botnet is a group of infected
computers that can be remotely controlled via a command and control server.
Question 18:
A user wants to ensure that all contacts from their mobile device are copied onto their computer before migrating to a new device. Which of the following processes can accomplish this?
A) Mirroring
B) Synchronization
C) Calling each contact
D) Attaching the contacts to an email
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. Synchronization can copy all contacts, programs, email messages,
pictures, music, and videos between a mobile device and a computer. Mirroring is a term reserved for when
devices replicate themselves to similar devices. Calling the contacts won’t achieve the desired result, and
emailing contacts is inefficient and does not immediately result in placing the contacts on the computer.
Question 19:
With which mobile filesystem are files with .ipa file extensions typically associated?
A) Android
B) iOS
C) Windows 10
D) Blackberry OS
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. The .ipa file extension is for iOS app store package files, and it is
therefore associated with iOS. Android apps have an extension of .apk. Windows 10 uses .exe. Blackberry OS uses
an extension of .jad.
Question 20:
A technician is configuring a new Windows computer for a home office. Which of the following steps should the technician take to secure the workstation?
A) Rename default accounts
B) Configure single sign-on
C) Disable Windows Update
D) Disable Action Center pop-ups
Explanation: Correct Answer is A. Renaming the default accounts on the new Windows computer is the
easiest way to secure the operating system. Configuring single sign-on should only be performed if a resource is
required that only uses SSO as authentication. Disabling Windows Update will do the opposite of securing the
operating system. Disabling Action Center pop-ups will also do the opposite of securing the operating system.
Question 21:
You need to protect files on the desktop operating system with encryption but find out you do not have a TPM. What can you use to protect the files?
A) BitLocker
B) Encrypted File System
C) BitLocker to Go
D) Full-drive encryption
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. Encrypted File System
(EFS) will encrypt and protect files on an NTFS filesystem without a TPM. BitLocker requires a TPM and therefore
will not work. BitLocker to Go is used with removable media. Full-drive encryption is used with mobile devices.
Question 22:
Which is a benefit of setup of a device with a Microsoft account?
A) Access to the online store
B) Automatic synchronization of OneDrive
C) Active Directory authentication
D) Offline authentication
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. When you set up a
device with a Microsoft account, you automatically synchronize files in OneDrive, along with other known
folders.
Question 23:
Which critical system generally requires third-party tools to troubleshoot performance problems?
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) Graphics
D) Network
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. Graphics cards usually
require third-party tools to diagnose performance problems.
Question 24:
What is the last step that should be performed when removing malware?
A) Investigate and verify symptoms.
B) Enable System Protection.
C) Educate the end user.
D) Schedule scans and run updates.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The last step in the
malware removal process is the education of the end user to prevent future occurrences of infection.
Question 25:
Your mobile device is suffering from an intermittent wireless connection. What is recommended to alleviate signal drops?
A) Shortening the SSID
B) Using the 5 GHz band
C) Reducing power on the WAP
D) Using the 2.4 GHz band
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. By using the 5 GHz
wireless band, you can limit the amount of interference from external devices such as microwave ovens and
Bluetooth devices.
Question 26:
You are receiving USB controller resource warning messages. What should you try to resolve the issue?
A) Move USB devices around on the USB ports.
B) Manually allot more endpoints.
C) Upgrade drivers for the USB devices.
D) Manually increase the output amperage.
Explanation: Correct Answer is A. Moving USB devices
around on the USB ports is the first step in remediating USB issues related to resources.
questionn 27:
Why is time drift a big problem on virtual machines?
A.) Lack of configuration for NTP server.
B.) Availability of NTP server.
C.) Shared physical RTC.
D.) Emulated RTC.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. Normally a
dedicated chip
called the real-time clock (RTC) keeps time for physical machines. However, with virtual machines their RTC
is
emulated and susceptible to time drift.
questionn 28:
Which tool can be used to restart a failed service?
A.) msconfig.exe.
B.) WinRE.
C.) Computer Management MMC.
D.) Resource Monitor.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The Computer
Management
MMC under Services can be used to restart and configure failed services.
questionn 29:
Which is a safety risk from overheating a lithium-ion battery?
A.) Reduced voltage.
B.) Shock.
C.) Explosion.
D.) Shutdown.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The risk of thermal
runaway is attributed to overheating a lithium-ion battery, which can lead to an explosion.
questionn 30:
Which of these are not generally attributed to an intermittent wireless issue?
A.) Bluetooth devices.
B.) Microwaves ovens.
C.) WAPs.
D.) Radar.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. Wireless access points
(WAPs) are
not generally subject to intermittent wireless issues; adding more WAPs generally reduces connectivity
problems.
Question 31:
You are trying to troubleshoot a problem with AirDrop. You have verified that both participants are within range and both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are turned on. What could the problem be?
A) AirDrop is configured for direct connection.
B) The sender is not in the recipient’s contacts
list.
C) The sender is in the blocked AirDrop list on
the recipient’s phone.
D) The phones are connected to the same SSID.
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. If the phones are
within Bluetooth range of each other and Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are turned on, then security is most likely the
cause. The sender must be in the recipient’s contact list.
Question 32:
Which network protocol and port does RDP operate on?
A) TCP port 3389
B) TCP port 22
C) TCP port 23
D) TCP port 443
Explanation: Correct Answer is A. The Remote Desktop
Protocol operates on TCP port 3389.
Question 33:
Which line would be used to comment Windows batch script code?
A) //comment
B) 'comment
C) REM comment
D) # comment
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The line of REM
comment is used to comment Windows batch script code.
Question 34:
Which command will launch the Remote Desktop Connection utility?
A) msra.exe
B) mstsc.exe
C) quickassist.exe
D) ssh.exe
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. The command mstsc.exe
will launch the Remote Desktop Connection utility.
Question 35:
A client computer connects to the main office and is configured with an IP address from the main office, on the client computer. What is being described?
A) Site-to-site VPN
B) Remote Desktop connection
C) SSH connection
D) Host-to-site VPN
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The scenario being
described is a host-to-site connection.
Question 36:
Zoom and Teams are classic examples of which of the following?
A) Screen-sharing software
B) Video-conferencing software
C) File transfer software
D) Desktop management software
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. Zoom and Teams are
classic
examples of video-conferencing software, because they allow multiple attendees and have a form of attendee
management.
Question 37:
Which remote access technology is used for encrypted console-based access?
A) MSRA
B) RDP
C) Telnet
D) SSH
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. The Secure Shell
utility
is used for secure console-based remote access.
Question 38:
Which of the following are good measures to take to help prevent ESD? (Choose two.)
A) Decrease the humidity.
B) Tie long hair back.
C) Take your shoes off.
D) Perform self-grounding.
Explanation: Correct Answer is B, D. Long hair can hold
a
static charge and damage computer parts; self-grounding helps prevent ESD before touching sensitive equipment.
Question 39:
Which of the following screwdrivers has a splined head?
A) Flat-tipped
B) Phillips
C) Axial
D) Torx
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. A Torx screwdriver has
a
splined head used for greater gripping of the screw.
Question 40:
What type of software licensing agreement usually provides free trial software, with the expectation that you will pay for it if you decide to keep it?
A) Freeware
B) Shareware
C) Open source
D) Single user
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. Shareware often
provides a
free trial of a program, with the expectation that you will pay for it if you keep it. Freeware and open source
applications are generally totally free, although the developers may ask for donations.
Question 41:
How do antistatic mats and wrist straps drain the potential ESD?
A) The use of magnets
B) Through a resistor
C) High-voltage probe
D) Direct ground
Explanation: Correct Answer is B. Typically, a 1
mega-ohm
resistor is used to slowly drain or discharge the potential electrostatic discharge (ESD).
Question 42:
When cleaning dust out of computer equipment, what should you always use?
A) Multimeter
B) Flashlight
C) Air filter mask
D) Mirror
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. An air filter mask
will
protect you from inhaling dust particles.
Question 43:
Which is the most likely source of interference to wireless communications?
A) Magnets
B) ESD
C) Surges
D) Microwave ovens
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. Microwave ovens
operate in
the 2.45 GHz range and can directly affect wireless communications.
Question 44:
While working on a user’s system, you discover a sticky note attached to the bottom of the keyboard that has their username and password written on it. The user is not around, and you need to verify that the network connection is working. What should you do?
A) Log in, verify access, and log out.
B) Log in and stay logged in when you are
finished.
C) Text the user.
D) Log in and change the user’s password.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. You should text the
user
and let them know that you need to verify their network connection.
Question 45:
While installing a new network card, you accidentally broke a component off the card. What should you do?
A.) Explain that the card was broken out of the
box.
B.) Install the card anyway.
C.) Inform the customer of the situation.
D.) Leave everything as is until you can locate
a new card.
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. You should be honest
and inform the customer of the situation.
Question 46:
Which regulation is enforced by the Health & Human Services (HHS) that regulates the privacy of patient information related to health services?
A) SOX
B) FERPA
C) HIPAA
D) GLBA
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects
health-care providers and providers that process health records. The Sarbanes–Oxley Act (SOX) is enforced by the
Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and regulates sensitive financial information and financial records.
The
Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) affects education providers and organizations that process
student
records. The Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act (GLBA) affects providers of financial services and safeguards customer
information.
Question 47:
Which ticket entry method is the easiest for end users to submit their own tickets?
A) Email entry
B) Portal entry
C) Manual entry
D) Application entry
Explanation: Correct Answer is A. Email entry is the easiest for end users because it allows them to
email
the ticketing system and use a method of communication they are familiar with. Portal entry requires the end
user to
log in to the portal, then enter fields in a form to submit a ticket. Manual ticket entry is not done by the end
user; it is completed by helpdesk staff. Application entry is an automated ticket that submits when an
application
has an issue; this is independent from what the user needs solved.
Question 48:
What is typically used for protecting data center equipment during a power outage?
A) Line interactive UPS
B) Surge protector
C) Standby UPS
D) Online UPS
Explanation: Correct Answer is D. An online uninterruptable power supply (UPS) is commonly found in data
centers, because power is continuously supplied from the batteries and no switchover is required. When power is
out,
the batteries just stop charging. A line interactive uninterruptable power supply (UPS) is common in server
racks to
protect network equipment. A surge protector protects against power surges and voltage spikes. A standby
uninterruptable power supply (UPS) is the most common type of power protection used for personal computers.
Question 49:
Which method is used to test a change in an isolated environment?
A) Primary plan
B) Backout plan
C) Sandbox testing
D) Technical evaluation
Explanation: Correct Answer is C. Sandbox testing is used to test a change before placing it into
production.
The process from the sandbox testing will become the primary plan used when the change in production is
green-lighted. The backout, also known as the rollback plan, is created in the event the primary plan fails in
production. The technical evaluation is a technical evaluation of the change, along with a draft of the primary
plan.
Question 50:
Which backup method can create a new current full backup from the files already contained on the backup media?
A) Synthetic
B) Copy
C) Incremental
D) Differential
Explanation: Correct Answer is A. A synthetic backup uses the latest full backup and applies each of the
daily backups to create a new full backup. The backup software performs this function by using the backup media
already obtained. A copy backup is similar to a full backup, except that it does not reset the archive bits and
requires backup from the servers. An incremental backup copies only those files that have changed since the last
backup and leaves the archive bits unchanged. A differential backup backs up only the files that have changed
since
the last backup.
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